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NEW QUESTION: 1
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server2 has the Windows Deployment Services server role installed.
On Server1, you have a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to deploy an image to VM1 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that VM1 can connect to Server1 by using PXE.
Which settings should you configure on VM1? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Answer:
Explanation:

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtual machines can be deployed to Hyper-V using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). To accomplish this requires the proper WDS infrastructure be in place and that the VM PXE boot using a Legacy Network Adapter.
By default, there is only a "Standard Network Adapter" installed on the Virtual Machine, but for PXE functionality you will need to add a "Legacy Network Adapter".
Go to the "Legacy Network Adapter" that you just added and specify that it should use the Virtual Switch that you just created.
Last but not least, you should change the BIOS boot priority to make sure that the Virtual Machine always tries to boot first using the "Legacy Network Adapter". Just select the "Legacy Network Adapter" and move it to the top using the buttons.
Start your Virtual Machine and now PXE boot should work.
The Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE) provider for Windows Deployment Services provides client boot services over the network. It registers itself with the WDS Server service (the main server-side service of the Windows Deployment Services solution) and requests a remote procedure call (RPC) endpoint.
After the Windows Deployment Services server role is installed, you must configure the server by using either the Windows Deployment Services MMC snap-in or the /Initialize-Server command-line option. The PXE provider must be configured properly before it can provide client boot services over the network.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc726550%28v=WS.10%29.aspx

NEW QUESTION: 2
A murmur has been discovered during the routine physical examination of a 1-year-old child. The parent is extremely concerned about this diagnosis. Which of the following explanations by the nurse indicates understanding of this dysfunction?
A. Most atrial septal defects close spontaneously.
B. The child can be treated medically with antibiotics to prevent bacterial endocarditis.
C. Surgical closure by suture or patch is recommended before school age.
D. The blood shifts from the right to the left atrium.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A)
Because the left atrial pressure is greater than right atrial pressure, oxygenated blood flows from the left to the right atria. (B) Because of the risk of pulmonary obstructive diseases and congestive heart failure later in life, surgery is usually performed between age 4 and 6 years, with essentially no operative mortality or postoperative complications.
(C)
Many ventricular septal defects close spontaneously (20-60%) as a result of growth and proliferation of the muscular septum or formation of a membrane across the opening.
(D)
This management is usually recommended with children with mild pulmonary stenosis.

NEW QUESTION: 3
__________ is the most common type of skin cancer and ___________ is the most deadly type of skin cancer?
A. oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma
B. squamous cell carcinoma, oat cell carcinoma
C. malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma
D. basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
Answer: D